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I HOLD A PRIVATE GYNAECOLOGICAL OFFICE IN GREECE.A PATIENT OF MINE IS UNDER HOMEOPATHY TREATMENT FOR PERSISTENT HEADACHES.I HAVE DIAGNOSED A CHLAMYDIAL AND UREOPLASMA INFECTION OF HER GENITALIAPROVEN BY CULTURES. SINCE THESE CONDITIONS ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASE(40%),SUBFERTILITY(20%) AND INCREASED RISK OF ECTOPIC PREGNANCY I WONDER WHY HER HOMEOPATHIST DOES NOT ALLOW HER TO TAKE THE APPROPRIATE TREATMENT AND IF YOU AGREE ON THAT.THANK YOU FOR YOUR ANSWER.
Hello Foteva,
To answer your question, I will need to elaborate upon the difference in homeopathic and allopathic approach from a homeopath’s viewpoint. When a patient comes to an allopathic physician with some complaints, the doctor
I was interested in reading the response to the above question. I don’t know if the response was truncated purposely or if it was posted incorrectly. If it is something that can be shared with the forum I would truly be interested in reading the full response. Thank you